The landlord is forcing me to pay 1 month of rent because I cancelled our verbal agreement 2 weeks before the rental period would have started. No contract was signed. The rental period didn't start when I canceled our verbal agreement. Is he in right to claim the money, although no contract was signed and the rental period didn't start? Thanks

  • This would seem to be more appropriate for Law, given that the problem is not specific to you as an expatriate. – Redd Herring Mar 1 at 3:43
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    @ReddHerring: It's actually quite appropriate here as well, since it's the kind of problem an expat might face. There is overlap between the two sites, after all. I'm not sure which site is better to get help. – einpoklum Mar 1 at 8:10
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    @Adina: Does the landlord actually have any of your money? i.e. have you paid him yet? Also, has he given you a key to the apartment? And a third question: Was the apartment being advertized somehow? If so, has the advertizement stopped? – einpoklum Mar 1 at 8:11
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    In short: a verbal agreement is an agreement too, legally. The point is there's no proof either way of what was agreed upon, and this is all about details. I doubt that you worked out all possible details verbally, anyway. So no, there will not be much he can legally do. That may explain why he is putting pressure on you. – Jan Doggen Mar 1 at 8:17
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    @Adina To be clear, are you referring to a new rental or to continuing one you already had (just your use of ‘the landlord’ raises a doubt in my mind). When you discussed the rental with the landlord, did he tell you there would be a cancellation penalty? IANAL but it seems to me if he didn’t then he is not acting within his ‘rights’ based on the verbal contract. He may believe you are not either, but maybe worth pointing out to him (if you haven’t already and assuming you are still in contact with him). – Traveller Mar 1 at 10:31

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