Is there any basis for thinking that USCIS would frown upon a case where somebody who applies for citizenship has accrued the physical presence days mostly at the first half of the 5 year period?
Let's suppose someone is applying for the citizenship in US (N-400, not a qualified spouse of US citizen)
Let's also suppose that applicant meets all 4 presence\residence related rules:
- During last 5 years before filing have been physically present in US at least 913 days in total
- Immediately before filing have been a resident of state where filing the application for at least 3 months
- Maintain continuous resident status for 5 years (no trips outside of US exceeding 5.5 months at a time)
- Maintain continuous residence in US during the period after filing the application and before been granted the citizenship
Let's say that residence period lasts from Jan 1, 2000 till Jan 1 2005 Let's say that person has been staying in US physically 2.5 years continuously without any trips outside US - so from Jan 1, 2000 to June 15 2002 has not left the country. Then in sharp contrast after the first 1/2 (of the 5 year period) have passed, the applicant has continuously taken trips lasting 5.5 months outside US returning back to US for a month or less and then going back abroad (mostly physically outside of US)
So basically
- staying in US for the first 1/2 half of the 5 year period
- traveling and being abroad for extensive periods, spending very little time in US for the second 1/2 half of the 5 year period
If it matters let's also say that the person maintains ties to US via continuous work for a US employer (working remotely) for the entire 5 year period