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I am an American and my boyfriend is German. We plan to get married here in San Francisco before I move to Germany in September, which removes my company from the visa process. My SF company wants to keep me on as a headcount and is willing to let me work remotely in Germany for 1 year. After that the German location will take me on as their headcount and I will be on their payroll/benefits. If there is a deal made between the two locations can I remain on the US payroll/benefits for 1 year if I am living in Germany with my spouse? If this is a possibility, will the US location be taxed as if I am an expatriate, even though I plan on residing in Germany permanently? I understand that there is the Tax Treaty USA/Germany and I would have to file my taxes with both countries.

I have looked at other questions but haven't found one that mirrors my situation. Any information on this would be very helpful! Thank you so much!!

closed as off-topic by ouflak, Gayot Fow, Dipen Shah, SztupY Aug 8 '17 at 14:19

  • This question does not appear to be about expatriates, within the scope defined in the help center.
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

  • It seems that nobody really knows the answer to this. Most similar questions here are answered mostly with speculation. The first question I'd have if I were in your shoes is how the German tax authorities would look on this, as well as the labor authorities. Legally I suspect they would see it as working in Germany as a full time employee of a foreign company, so the terms of your employment would have to comply with German standards. Is the foreign company even allowed to employ someone in Germany? (I'm assuming the US location and the German location are separate legal entities.) – phoog Feb 1 '16 at 21:06
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    I'm voting to close this question as off-topic this has to do with tax laws and treaties, and requires a legal opinion. – Giorgio Aug 2 '17 at 22:00
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    I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because this area of immigration law is simply undeveloped and therefore unkknowable at this time. – ouflak Aug 2 '17 at 22:19
  • The answer is yes, of course – Gayot Fow Aug 3 '17 at 10:27